BUILDING MATERIALS - GENERAL QUESTIONS ASKED IN COMPETITIVE EXAMS

1. Gypsum is a
a) mechanically formed sedimentary rock
b) igneous rock
c) chemically precipitated sedimentary rock
d) metamorphic rock
Ans: c
2. Which of the following sedimentary rocks changes into quartzite by metamorphic action ?
a) sand stone
b) lime stone
c) shale
d) gypsum
Ans: a
3. Which of the following represents a metamorphic rock?
i) slate
ii) shale
iii) quartzite
The correct answer is
a) only (iii)
b) both (i) and (iii)
c) both (ii) and (iii)
d) all (i), (ii) and (iii)
Ans: b
4. Quartitze is a
a) silicious rock
b) argillaceous rock
c) calcareous rock
d) aqueous rock
Ans: a
5. Which of the following is a mineral ?
a) basalt
b) granite
c) quartz
d) syenite
Ans: c
6. Slate is formed by metamorphic action on
a) shale
b) lime stone
c) sand stone
d) granite
Ans: a
7. Sandstone is a
i) sedimentary rock
ii) aqueous rock
iii) silicious rock
The correct answer is
a) only (i)
b) both (i) and (ii)
c) both (i) and (iii)
d) all (i), (ii) and (iii)
Ans: d
8. Which of the following is a rock ?
a) quartz
b) mica
c) gypsum
d) none of the above
Ans: c
9. Based on the following rocks and minerals, select the correct statement, quartz, shale,
basalt, granite, marble, gypsum, mica
a) basalt and marble are the only metamorphic rocks
b) there is no sedimentary rock
c) granite is the only igneous rock
d) quartz and mica are minerals
Ans: d
10. A heavy stone is suitable for
a) arches
b) rubble masonry
c) roads
d) retaining walls
Ans: d
11. The stone suitable for rubble masonry should be.
a) hard
b) tough
c) heavy
d) light
Ans: a
12. Which of the following metamorphic rocks has the most weather resisting
characteristics?
a) marble
b) quartzite
c) slate
d) lime stone
Ans: b
13. A good building stone should not absorb water more than
a) 5%
b) 10%
c) 15%
d) 20%
Ans: a
14. Which of the following has more fire resisting characteristics ?
a) marble
b) lime stone
c) compact sand stone
d) granite
Ans: c
15. Jumper is a tool used for
a) testing of stones
b) quarrying of stones
c) dressing of stones
d) none of the above
Ans: b
16. The important test to be conducted on a stone used in docks and harbours is
a) hardness test
b) workability test
c) weight test
d) toughness test
Ans: c
17. The predominant constituent which is responsible for strength in granite is
a) quartz
b) felspar
c) mica
d) none of the above
Ans: a
18. Granite is not suitable for ordinary building purpose because
a) it can not be polished
b) it is not a fire proof material
c) it is costly
d) it has less crushing strength
Ans: c
19. Which of the following stone is best suited for construction of piers and abutments of a
railway bridge ?
a) granite
b) sand stone
c) lime stone
d) quartzite
Ans: a
20. The preparation of surface of stone to obtain plain edges or to obtain stones of
required size and shape is known as
a) quarrying of stones
b) blasting of stones
c) seasoning of stones
d) dressing of stones
Ans: d
21. Crushing strength of a good building stone should be more than
a) 50 MPa
b) 100 MPa
c) 150 MPa
d) 200 MPa
Ans: b
22. Specific gravity for most of the building stones lies between
a) 1.5 to 2.0
b) 2.0 to 2.5
c) 2.5 to 3.0
d) 3.0 to 3.5
Ans: c
23. Spalling hammer is used for
a) driving wooden headed chisels
b) rough dressing of stones
c) carving of stones
d) breaking small projection of stones
Ans: b
24. Cross cut saw is used for
a) cutting soft stones
b) cutting hard stones
c) cutting large blocks of stones
d) dressing stones
Ans: b
25. Sapwood consists of
a) innermost annular rings around the pith
b) portion of timber between heartwood and cambium layer
c) thin layers below the bark
d) thin fibre which extends from the pith outwards and holds the annular rings together
Ans: b
26. Which of the following trees yields hard wood ?
a) deodar
b) chir
c) shishum
d) pine
Ans: c
27. The radial splits which are wider on the outside of the log and narrower towards the pith
are known as
a) heart shakes
b) cupshakes
c) starshakes
d) rindgalls
Ans: c
28. In which of the following pairs both trees yield soft wood?
a) deodar and shishum
b) chir and sal
c) sal and teak
d) chir and deodar
Ans: d
29. Which of the following timbers is suitable for making sports goods ?
a) mulberry
b) mahogany
c) sal
d) deodar
Ans: a
30. Assertion A : Shishum is used for decorative woodwork.
Reason R : Shishum can be polished to an excellent finish.
Select your answer according to the coding system given below :
a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
c) A is true but R is false
d) A is false but R is true
Ans: a
31. The disease of dry rot in timber is caused by
a) lack of ventilation
b) alternate wet and dry conditions
c) complete submergence in water
d) none of the above
Ans: a
32. Plywood has the advantage of'
a) greater tensile strength in longer direction
b) greater tensile strength in shorter direction
c) same tensile strength in all directions
d) none of the above
Ans: c
33. In which of the following directions, the strength of timber is maximum ?
a) parallel to grains
b) 45° to grains
c) perpendicular to grains
d) same in all directions
Ans: a
34. The moisture content in a well seasoned timber is
a) 4% to 6%
b) 10% to 12%
c) 15% to 20%
d) 100%
Ans: b
35. The trunk of tree left after cutting all the branches is known as
a) log
b) batten
c) plank
d) baulk
Ans: a
36. The age of a tree can be known by examining
a) cambium layer
b) annular rings
c) medullary rays
d) heart wood
Ans: b
37. Plywood is made by bonding together thin layers of wood in such a way that the angle
between grains of any layer to grains of adjacent layers is
a) 0°
b) 30°
c) 45°
d) 90°
Ans: d
38. The plywood
a) has good strength along the panel only
b) can be spilt in the plane of the panel
c) has greater impact resistance to blows than ordinary wood
d) cannot be bent more easily than ordinary wood of same thickness
Ans: c
39. The practical limit of moisture content achieved in air drying of timber is
a) 5%
b) 15%
c) 25%
d) 35%
Ans: b
40. First class timber has an average life of
a) less than one year
b) 1 to 5 years
c) 5 to 10 years
d) more than 10 years
Ans: d
41. A first class brick when immersed in cold water for 24 hours should not absorb water
more than
a) 15%
b) 20%
c) 22%
d) 25%
Ans: b
42. Crushing strength of a first class brick should not be less than
a) 3.5 N/mm2
b) 7.0 N/mm2
c) 10.5 N/mm2
d) 14.0 N/mm2
Ans: c
43. The main function of alumina in brick earth is
a) to impart plasticity
b) to make the brick durable
c) to prevent shrinkage
d) to make the brick impermeable
Ans: a
44. The percentage of alumina in a good brick earth lies between
a) 5 to 10%
b) 20 to 30%
c) 50 to 60%
d) 70 to 80%
Ans: b
45. Excess of alumina in brick earth makes the brick
a) impermeable
b) brittle and weak
c) to lose cohesion
d) to crack and warp on drying
Ans: d
46. The nominal size of the modular brick is
a) 190 mm x 90mm x 80 mm
b) 190 mm x 190 mm x 90 mm
c) 200 mm x 100 mm x 100 mm
d) 200 mm x 200 mm x 100 mm
Ans: c
47. Percentage of silica in a good brick earth lies between
a) 5 to 10%
b) 20 to 30%
c) 50 to 60%
d) 70 to 80%
Ans: c
48. Excess of silica in brick earth results in
a) cracking and warping of bricks
b) loss of cohesion
c) enhancing the impermeability of bricks
d) none of the above
Ans: b
49. Which of the following ingredients of the brick earth enables the brick to retain its shape
?
a) alumina
b) silica
c) iron
d) magnesia
Ans: b
50. Which of the following pairs gives a correct combination of the useful and harmful
constituents respectively of a
good brick earth ?
a) lime stone and alumina
b) silica and alkalies
c) alumina and iron
d) alkalies and magnesium
Ans: b
51. The process of mixing clay, water and other ingredients to make brick is known as
a) kneading
b) moulding
c) pugging
d) drying
Ans: a
52. Advantage of a clamp compared to a kiln for burning bricks is that
a) it takes less time for burning
b) it gives more output of first class bricks
c) it has less initial cost
d) it is suitable when bricks are required in large numbers
Ans: c
53. The internal size of mould used in brick preparation is
a) equal to the size of a fully burnt brick
b) smaller than the size of a fully burnt brick
c) greater than the size of a fully burnt brick
d) none of the above
Ans: c
54. Pug mill is used for
a) preparation of clay
b) moulding of clay
c) drying of bricks
d) burning of bricks
Ans: a
55. Which of the following bricks are used for lining of furnaces ?
a) overburnt bricks
b) underburnt bricks
c) refractory bricks
d) first class bricks
Ans: c
56. The frog of the brick in a brick masonry is generally kept on
a) bottom face
b) top face
c) shorter side
d) longer side
Ans: b
57. Number of bricks required for one cubic metre of brick masonry is
a) 400
b) 450
c) 500
d) 550
Ans: c
58. Glazing is used to make earthenware
a) hard
b) soft
c) porous
d) impervious
Ans: d
59. Quick lime is
a) calcium carbonate
b) calcium oxide
c) calcium hydroxide
d) none of the above
Ans: b
60. Quick lime is
i) slow in setting
ii) rapid in slacking
iii) good in strength The correct answer is
a) only (i)
b) only (ii)
c) both (i) and (ii)
d) both (ii) and (iii)
Ans: c
61. Assertion A : Pure lime takes a long time to develop adequate strength.
Reason R : Pure lime has slow hardening characteristics.
Select your answer according to the coding system given below :
a) Both A and R are true and R is correct explanation of A.
b) Both A and R are true and R is not a correct explanation of A.
c) A is true but R is false.
d) A is false but R is true.
Ans: a
62. Hydraulic lime is obtained by
a) burning of lime stone
b) burning of kankar
c) adding water to quick lime
d) calcination of pure clay
Ans: b
63. The main constituent which imparts hydraulicity to hydraulic lime is
a) calcium oxide
b) silica
c) clay
d) water
Ans: c
64. Study the following statements.
i) Hydraulic lime is suitable for white washing,
ii) Fat lime is suitable for whitewashing,
iii) Hydraulic lime is suitable for making mortar,
iv) Fat lime is suitable for making mortar.
The correct answer is
a) (i) and (iv)
b) (ii) and (iii)
c) (i) and (ii)
d) (iii) and (iv)
Ans: b
65. The main ingredients of Portland cement are
a) lime and silica
b) lime and alumina
c) silica and alumina
d) lime and iron
Ans: a
66. The constituent of cement which is responsible for all the undesirable properties of
cement is
a) dicalcium silicate
b) tricalcium silicate
c) tricalcium aluminate
d) tetra calcium alumino ferrite
Ans: c
67. Le Chatelier's device is used for determining the
a) setting time of cement
b) soundness of cement
c) tensile strength of cement
d) compressive strength of cement
Ans: b
68. The main constituent of cement which is responsible for initial setting of cement is
a) dicalcium silicate
b) tricalcium silicate
c) tricalcium aluminate
d) all of the above
Ans: c
69. The initial setting time for ordinary Portland cement as per IS specifications should not
be less than
a) 10 minutes
b) 30 minutes
c) 60 minutes
d) 600 minutes
Ans: b
70. As per IS specifications, the maximum final setting time for ordinary Portland cement
should be
a) 30 minutes
b) 1 hour
c) 6 hours
d) 10 hours
Ans: d
71. For testing compressive strength of cement, the size of cube used is
a) 50 mm
b) 70.6 mm
c) 100 mm
d) 150 mm
Ans: a
72. The normal consistency of ordinary Portland cement is about
a) 10%
b) 20%
c) 30%
d) 40%
Ans: c
73. Early attainment of strength in rapid hardening cement is mainly due to
a) gypsum
b) finer grinding
c) tricalcium silicate
d) tricalcium aluminate
Ans: b
74. After storage, the strength of cement
a) decreases
b) increases
c) remains same
d) may increase or decrease
Ans: a
75. According to IS specifications, the compressive strength of ordinary portland cement
after three days should not be less than
a) 7 MPa
b) 11.5 MPa
c) 16 MPa
d) 21 MPa
Ans: c
76. Addition of pozzolana to ordinary Portland cement increases
a) bleeding
b) shrinkage
c) permeability
d) heat of hydration
Ans: b
77. Gypsum consists of
a) H2S and C02
b) CaS04 and H20
c) Lime and H20
d) C02 and calcium
Ans: b
78. For testing compressive and tensile strength of cement, the cement mortar is made by
mixing cement and standard sand in the proportions of
a) 1:2
b) 1:3
c) 1:4
d) 1:6
Ans: b
79. The slump recommended for mass concrete is about
a) 25 mm to 50 mm
b) 50 mm to 100 mm
c) 100 mm to 125 mm
d) 125 mm to 150 mm
Ans: a
80. With increase in moisture content, the bulking of sand
a) increases
b) decreases
c) first increases to a certain maximum value and then decreases
d) first decreases to a certain minimum value and then increases
Ans: c
81. Which of the following cements is suitable for use in massive concrete structures such
as large dams ?
a) ordinary Portland cement
b) low heat cement
c) rapid hardening cement
d) sulphate resisting cement
Ans: b
82. Proper amount of entrained air in concrete results in
i) better workability
ii) better resistance to freezing and thawing
iii) lesser workability
iv) less resistance to freezing and thawing The correct answer is
a) (i) and (ii)
b) (i)and(iv)
c) (ii) and (iii)
d) (iii) and (iv)
Ans: a
83. The most common admixture which is used to accelerate the initial set of concrete is
a) gypsum
b) calcium chloride (1.5% TO 2%)
c) calcium carbonate
d) none of the above
Ans: b
84. The maximum quantity of calcium chloride used as an accelerator in cement in
percentage by weight of cement is
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
Ans: b
85. The basic purpose of a retarder in concrete is
a) to increase the initial setting time of cement paste in concrete
b) to decrease the initial setting time of cement paste in concrete
c) to render the concrete more water tight
d) to improve the workability of concrete mix
Ans: b
86. Which of the following cements contains maximum percentage of dicalcium silicate?
a) ordinary Portland cement
b) low heat cement
c) rapid hardening cement
d) sulphate resisting cement
Ans: b
87. The most commonly used retarder in cement is
a) gypsum
b) calcium chloride
c) calcium carbonate
d) none of the above
Ans: a
88. Three basic raw materials which are needed in large quantities for production of steel
are
a) iron ore, coal and sulphur
b) iron ore, carbon and sulphur
c) iron ore, coal and lime stone
d) iron ore, carbon and lime stone
Ans: c
89. Compared to mild steel, cast iron has
i) high compressive strength
ii) high tensile strength
iii) low compressive strength
iv) low tensile strength
The correct answer is
a) (i) and (ii)
b) (ii) and (iii)
c) (iii) and (iv)
d) (i)and(iv)
Ans: d
90. Which of the following gradients exerts maximum influence on properties of steel?
a) iron
b) carbon
c) manganese
d) sulphur
Ans: b
91. Which of the following is the purest form of iron ?
a) cast iron
b) wrought iron
c) mild steel
d) high carbon steel
Ans: b
92. The ultimate tensile strength of structural mild steel is about
a) 160N/mm2
b) 260N/mm2
c) 420 N/mm2
d) 520 N/mm2
Ans: c
93. Percentage of carbon content in mild steel is
a) less than 0.25
b) between 0.25 and 0.7
c) between 0.7 and 1.5
d) greater than 1.5
Ans: a
94. Which of the following stresses is used for identifying the quality of structural steel ?
a) ultimate stress
b) yield stress
c) proof stress
d) none of the above
Ans: b
95. The ratio of the thickness of web to that of flange of steel rolled structural beams and
channels is
a) less than 1
b) equal to 1
c) greater than 1
d) less than 1 in beams but greater than 1 in channels
Ans: a
96. Paints with white lead base are suitable for painting of
a) wood work
b) iron work
c) both wood work and iron work
d) none of the above
Ans: a
97. Assertion A : Paints with white lead base are not recommended for painting of iron
works.
Reason R : Paints with white lead base do not check rusting of iron.
Select your answer according to the coding system given below :
a) Both A and R are true and, R is the correct explanation of A.
b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
c) A is true but R is false
d) A is false but R is true
Ans: a
98. The amount of water used for one kg of distemper is
a) 0.2 litre
b) 0.4 litre
c) 0.6 litre
d) 0.8 litre
Ans: c
99. The vehicle used in case of enamel paints is usually
a) linseed oil
b) water
c) varnish
d) none of the above
Ans: c
100. Assertion A : Normally turpentine oil is recommended as thinner for indoor painting.
Reason R : Turpentine oil is costlier than other thinners.
Select your answer according to the coding system given below :
a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
c) A is true but R is false.
d) A is false but R is true.
Ans: b
101. In brick masonry the bond produced by laying alternate headers and stretchers in
each course is known as
a) English bond
b) double flemish bond
c) zigzag bond
d) single flemish bond
Ans: b
102. The stretcher bond in brick masonry can be used only when the thickness of wall is
a) 90 mm
b) 180 mm
c) 190 mm
d) 280 mm
Ans: a
103. The pressure acting on the stones in stone masonry construction should be
a) along the direction of bedding planes
b) at 45° to the direction of bedding planes
c) at 60° to the direction of bedding planes
d) perpendicular to the direction of bedding planes
Ans: d
104. Which of the following should be used for hearting of thicker walls ?
a) headers
b) stretchers
c) brick bats
d) queen closer
Ans: a
105. A queen closer is a
a) brick laid with its length parallel to the face or direction of wall
b) brick laid with its breadth parallel to the face or direction of wall
c) brick having the same length and depth as the other bricks but half the breadth
d) brick with half the width at one end and full width at the other
Ans: c
106. Minimum thickness of wall where single flemish bond can be used is
a) half brick thick
b) one brick thick
c) one and a half bricks thick
d) two bricks thick
Ans: c
107. The most important tool in brick laying for lifting and spreading mortar and for forming
joints is
a) trowel
b) square
c) bolster
d) scutch
Ans: a
108. Expansion Joints in masonry walls are provided in wall lengths usually greter than
a) 10 m
b) 20 m
c) 30 m
d) 40 m
Ans: d
109. The type of bond provided in brick masonry for carrying heavy loads is
a) single flemish bond
b) double flemish bond
c) English bond
d) zigzag bond
Ans: c
110. A mortar joint in masonry which is normal to the face of wall is known as
a) bed joint
b) wall joint
c) cross joint
d) bonded joint
Ans: c
111. The slenderness ratio for masonry walls should not be more than
a) 10
b) 20
c) 30
d) 40
Ans: b
112. The proportions of lime and sand in the mortar normally used in brick construction are
a) 1:2
b) 1:4
c) 1:6
d) 1:8
Ans: a
113. Number of vertical joints in a stretcher course is x times the number of joints in the
header course, where x is equal to
a) 1/2
b) 1
c) 2
d) 1/4
Ans: a
114. As compared to stretcher course, the thickness of joints in header course should be
a) less
b) more
c) equal
d) equal or more
Ans: a
115. As compared to English bond, double flemish bond is
a) stronger
b) more compact
c) costly
d) none of the above
Ans: b
116. Single flemish bond consists of
a) double flemish bond facing and Eng-lish bond backing in each course
b) English bond facing and double flemish bond backing in each course
c) stretcher bond facing and double flemish bond backing in each course
d) double flemish bond facing and header bond backing in each course
Ans: a
117. The differential settlement in case of foundations on sandy soils should not exceed
a) 25 mm
b) 40 mm
c) 65 mm
d) 100 mm
Ans: a
118. In case of foundations on black cotton soils, the most suitable method to increase the
bearing capacity of soils is to
a) increase the depth of foundation
b) drain the soil
c) compact the soil
d) replace the poor soil
Ans: d
119. The type of footing which is used to transmit heavy loads through steel columns is
a) raft foundation
b) grillage foundation
c) well foundation
d) isolated footing
Ans: b
120. The maximum total settlement for isolated foundations on clayey soils should be limited
to
a) 25 mm
b) 40 mm
c) 65 mm
d) 100 mm
Ans: c
121. The type of pile which is driven at an inclination to resist inclined forces is known as
a) friction pile
b) sheet pile
c) batter pile
d) anchor pile
Ans: c
122. The minimum depth of foundation in clayey soils is
a) 0.5 m
b) 0.7 m
c) 0.9 m
d) 1.2 m
Ans: c
123. The maximum total settlement for raft foundation on clayey soils should be limited to
a) 25 mm
b) 25 to 40 mm
c) 40 to 65 mm
d) 65 to 100 mm
Ans: d
124. The bearing capacity of a water logged soil can be improved by
a) compacting the soil
b) draining the soil
c) increasing the depth of foundation
d) grouting
Ans: b
125. The type of flooring suitable for use in churches, theatres, public libraries and other
places where noiseless floor covering is desired is
a) cork flooring
b) glass flooring
c) wooden flooring
d) linoleum flooring
Ans: a
126. The vertical distance between the springing line and highest point of the innercurve of
an arch is known as
a) intrados
b) rise
c) spandril
d) extrados
Ans: b
127. Depth or height of the arch is the
a) perpendicular distance between intra-dos and extrados
b) vertical distance between springing line and intrados
c) perpendicular distance between springing line and extrados
d) none of the above
Ans: a
128. The triangular space formed between the extrados and the horizontal line drawn
through the crown of an arch is known as
a) haunch
b) spandril
c) voussoirs
d) skewbacks
Ans: b
129. The lintels are preferred to arches because
a) arches require more headroom to span the openings like doors, windows etc.
b) arches require strong abutments to withstand arch thrust
c) arches are difficult in construction
d) all of the above
Ans: d
130. In the construction of arches, sand box method is used for
a) centring
b) actual laying of arch work
c) striking of centring
d) none of the above
Ans: c
131. The type of arch generally constructed over a wooden lintel or over a flat arch for the
purpose of carrying the load of the wall above is
a) segmental arch
b) pointed arch
c) relieving arch
d) flat arch
Ans: c
132. The type of joint commonly used at the junction of a principal rafter and tie beam in
timber trussess is
a) mortise and tennon joint
b) oblique mortise and tennon joint
c) butt joint
d) mitred joint
Ans: b
133. The type of roof suitable in plains where rainfall is meagre and temperature is high is
a) pitched and sloping roof
b) flat roof
c) shell roof
d) none of the above
Ans: b
134. Pitched and sloping roofs are suitable for
a) coastal regions
b) plain regions
c) covering large areas
d) all of the above
Ans: a
135. The type of roof which slopes in two directions with a break in the slope on each side is
known as
a) gable roof
b) hip roof
c) gambrel roof
d) mansard roof
Ans: c
136. Mansard roof is a roof which slopes in
a) two directions without break in the slope on each side
b) two directions with break in the slope on each side
c) four directions without break in the slope on each side
d) four directions with break in the slope on each side
Ans: d
137. The horizontal timber piece provided at the apex of a roof truss which supports the
common rafter is called
a) ridge board
b) hip rafter
c) eaves board
d) valley rafter
Ans: a
138. The lower edge of the pitched roof, from where the rain water of the roof surface drops
down, is known as
a) hip
b) gable
c) ridge
d) eaves
Ans: d
139. Higher pitch of the roof
i) results in stronger roof
ii) results in weaker roof
iii) requires more covering material
iv) requires less covering material
The correct answer is
a) (i) and (iii)
b) (i) and (iv)
c) (ii) and (iii)
d) (ii) and (iv)
Ans: a
140. Couple close roof is suitable for maximum span of
a) 2.5 m
b) 3.5 m
c) 4.5 m
d) 5.5 m
Ans: c
141. In a colar beam roof
a) there is no horizontal tie beam
b) there is a horizontal tie at the feet of rafters only
c) there is a horizontal tie at almost the middle of rafters only
d) there are two horizontal ties, one at the feet and other at the middle of the rafters
Ans: c
142. The function of king post in a king post roof truss is
a) to support the frame work of the roof
b) to receive the ends of principal rafter
c) to prevent the walls from spreading outward
d) to prevent the tie beam from sagging at its centre
Ans: d
143. The function of cleats in a roof truss is
a) to support the common rafter
b) to support purlins
c) to prevent the purlins from tilting
d) all of the above
Ans: c
144. The term string is used for
a) the underside of a stair
b) outer projecting edge of a tread
c) a sloping member which supports the steps in a stair
d) a vertical member between two treads
Ans: c
145. The vertical posts placed at the top and bottom ends of a flight supporting the hand rail
are known as
a) balusters
b) newal posts
c) balustrades
d) railings
Ans: b
146. The maximum number of steps in a flight should generally be restricted to
a) 10
b) 12
c) 15
d) no limit
Ans: b
147. The number of steps in a flight generally should not be less than
a) 2
b) 3
c) 5
d) no limit
Ans: b
148. Sum of tread and rise must lie between
a) 300 to 350 mm
b) 400 to 450 mm
c) 500 to 550 mm
d) 600 to 650 mm
Ans: b
149. Minimum width of landing should be
a) equal to width of stairs
b) half the width of stairs
c) twice the width of stairs
d) one fourth the width of stairs
Ans: a
150. In any good staircase, the maximum and minimum pitch respectively should be
a) 90° and 0°
b) 75° and 30°
c) 60° and 10°
d) 40° and 25°
Ans: d

COURTESY : ENGINEERING KINGS

CONCRETE TECHNOLOGY - GENERAL QUESTIONS ASKED IN COMPETITIVE EXAMS

1. To determine the modulus of rupture, the size of test specimen used is

a) 150 x150 x500 mm

b) 100 x100 x700 mm

c) 150 x150 x700 mm

d) 100 x100 x500 mm
Ans: c
2. The property of fresh concrete, in which the water in the mix tends to rise to the surface

while placing and compacting, is called

a) segregation

b) bleeding

c) bulking

d) creep

Ans: b

3. Select the incorrect statement

a) Lean mixes bleed more as compared to rich ones.

b) Bleeding can be minimized by adding pozzuolana finer aggregate.

c) Bleeding can be increased by addition 'of calcium chloride.

d) none of the above

Ans: d

4. The property of the ingredients to separate from each other while placing the concrete is

called

a) segregation

b) compaction

c) shrinkage

d) bulking

Ans: a

5. Workability of concrete is directly proportional to

a) aggregate cement ratio

b) time of transit

c) grading of the aggregate

d) all of above

Ans: c

6. Workability of concrete is inversely pro¬portional to

a) time of transit

b) water-cement ratio

c) the air in the mix

d) size of aggregate

Ans: a

7. Approximate value of shrinkage strain in concrete, is

a) 0.003

b) 0.0003

c) 0.00003

d) 0.03

Ans: b

8. Air entrainment in the concrete increases

a) workability

b) strength

c) the effects of temperature variations

d) the unit weight

Ans: a

9. The relation between modulus of rupture fcr, splitting strength fcs and direct tensile

strength fcl is given by

a) tcr -rcs = tct

b) fcr>fcs>fc.

C) fcr

d) fc5>fcr>fC.

Ans: b

10. The approximate value of the ratio between direct tensile strength and flexural strength

is

a) 0.33

b) 0.5

c) 0.75

d) 1.0

Ans: b

11. Strength of concrete increases with

a) increase in water-cement ratio

b) increase in fineness of cement

c) decrease in curing time

d) decrease in size of aggregate

Ans: b

12. The relation between modulus of rupturefcr and characteristic strength of concrete fck is

given by

a) fcr=0.35Vf7

b) fcr=0.57f7

c) fcr=0.7Vf7

d) fcr=1.2Vf7

where fcr and fck are in N/mm2'

Ans: c

13. The compressive strength of 100 mm cube as compared to 150 mm cube is always

a) less

b) more

c) equal

d) none of the above

Ans: b

14. According to IS : 456 -1978, the modulus of elasticity of concrete Ec (in N/mm2) can be

taken as

a) Ec = = 5700

b) Ec = = 570

c) Ec = = 5700fck

d) Ec = where fck N/mm2 = 700 is the characteristic strength in

Ans: a

15. Increase in the moisture content in con-crete

a) reduces the strength

b) increases the strength

c) does not change the strength

d) all of the above

Ans: a

16. As compared to ordinary portland cement, use of pozzuolanic cement

a) reduces workability

b) increases bleeding

c) increases shrinkage

d) increases strength

Ans: c

17. Admixtures which cause early setting, and hardening of concrete are called

a) workability admixtures

b) accelerators

c) retarders

d) air entraining agents

Ans: b

18. The most commonly used admixture which prolongs the setting and hardening time is

a) gypsum

b) calcium chloride

c) sodium silicate

d) all of the above

Ans: a

19. The percentage of voids in cement is approximately

a) 25%

b) 40%

c) 60%

d) 80%

Ans: b

20. The strength of concrete after one year as compared to 28 days strength is about

a) 10 to 15% more

b) 15 to 20% more

c) 20 to 25% more

d) 25 to 50% more

Ans: c

21. As compared to ordinary portland cement, high alumina cement has

a) higher initial setting time but lower final setting time

b) lower initial setting time but higher final setting time

c) higher initial and final setting times

d) lower initial and final setting times

Ans: a

22. Modulus of rupture of concrete is a measure of

a) flexural tensile strength

b) direct tensile strength

c) compressive strength

d) split tensile strength

Ans: a

23. In order to obtain the best workability of concrete, the preferred shape of aggregate is

a) rounded

b) elongated

c) angular

d) all of the above

Ans: a

24. The effect of adding calcium chloride in concrete is

i) to increase shrinkage

ii) to decrease shrinkage

iii) to increase setting time

iv) to decrease setting time

The correct answer is

a) (i) and (iii)

b) (i)and(iv)

c) (ii) and (iii)

d) (ii) and (iv)

Ans: b

25. Bulking of sand is maximum if moisture content is about

a) 2 %

b) 4%

c) 6%

d) 10%

Ans: b

26. Finer grinding of cement

a) affects only the early development of strength

b) affects only the ultimate strength

c) both (a) and (b)

d) does not affect the strength

Ans: a

27. Poisson's ratio for concrete

a) remains constant

b) increases with richer mixes

c) decreases with richer mixes

d) none of the above

Ans: b

28. 1% of voids in a concrete mix would reduce its strength by about

a) 5%

b) 10 %

c) 15%

d) 20%

Ans: a

29. The fineness modulus of fine aggregate is in the range of

a) 2.0 to 3.5

b) 3.5 to 5.0

c) 5.0 to 7.0

d) 6.0 to 8.5

Ans: a

30. The factor of safety for

a) steel and concrete are same

b) steel is lower than that for concrete

c) steel is higher than that for concrete

d) none of the above

Ans: b

31. Examine the following statements :

i) Factor of safety for steel should be based on its yield stress,

ii) Factor of safety for steel should be based on its ultimate stress,

iii) Factor of safety for concrete should be based on its yield stress,

iv) Factor of safety for concrete should be based on its ultimate stress.

The correct statements are

a) (i) and (iii)

b) (i)and(iv)

c) (ii) and (iii)

d) (ii) and (iv)

Ans: b

32. For a reinforced concrete section, the shape of shear stress diagram is

a) wholly parabolic

b) wholly rectangular

c) parabolic above neutral axis and rectangular below neutral axis

d) rectangular above neutral axis and parabolic below neutral axis

Ans: c

33. Diagonal tension in a beam

a) is maximum at neutral axis

b) decreases below the neutral axis and increases above the neutral axis

c) increases below the neutral axis and decreases above the neutral axis

d) remains same

Ans: c

34. If a beam fails in bond, then its bond strength can be increased most economi-cally by

a) increasing the depth of beam

b) using thinner bars but more in number

c) using thicker bars but less in number

d) providing vertical stirrups

Ans: b

35. If nominal shear stress tv exceeds the design shear strength of concrete xc, the nominal

shear reinforcement as per IS : 456-1978 shall be provided for carrying a shear stress equal

to

a) xv

b) xc

c) xv - TC

d) Tv + Tc

Ans: c

36. If the depth of actual neutral axis in a beam is more than the depth of critical neutral axis,

then the beam is called

a) balanced beam

b) under-reinforced beam

c) over-reinforced beam

d) none of the above

Ans: c

37. If the depth of neutral axis for a singly reinforced rectangular section is represented by

kd in working stress design, then the value of k for balanced section

a) depends on as, only

b) depends on aCbC only

c) depends on both crst and acbc

d) is independant of both ast and acbc where d is the effective depth, ast is per-missible

stress in steel in tension and ocbc is permissible stress in concrete in bend¬ing compression.

Ans: a

38. If the permissible stress in steel in tension is 140 N/mm2, then the depth of neutral axis for

a singly reinforced rectangular balanced section will be

a) 0.35 d

b) 0.40 d

c) 0.45 d

d) dependent on grade of concrete also

Ans: b

39. Modulus of elasticity of steel as per IS : 456-1978 shall be taken as

a) 20 kN/cm2

b) 200 kN/cm2

c) 200kN/mm2

d) 2xl06N/cm2

Ans: c

40. Minimum grade of concrete to be used in reinforced concrete as per IS:456-1978 is

a) M15

b) M20

c) M 10

d) M25

Ans: a

41. For concreting of heavily reinforced sections without vibration, the workability of concrete

expressed as compacting

factor should be

a) 0.75-0.80

b) 0.80-0.85

c) 0.85 - 0.92

d) above 0.92

Ans: d

42. Maximum quantity of water needed per 50 kg of cement for M 15 grade of concrete is

a) 28 litres

b) 30 litres

c) 32 litres

d) 34 litres

Ans: c

43. In case of hand mixing of concrete, the extra cement to be added is

a) 5%

b) 10%

c) 15%

d) 20%

Ans: b

44. For walls, columns and vertical faces of all structural members, the form work is

generally removed after

a) 24 to 48 hours

b) 3 days

c) 7 days

d) 14 days

Ans: a

45. The individual variation between test strength of sample should not be more than

a) ±5% of average

b) ± 10% of average

c) ± 15% of average

d) ±20% of average

Ans: c

46. One of the criteria for the effecvve width of flange of T-beam is bf =—+ bw +6Df 6

In above formula, l0 signifies

a) effective span of T-beam

b) distance between points of zero mo-ments in the beam

c) distance between points of maximum moments in the beam

d) clear span of the T-beam

Ans: b

47. For a cantilever of effective depth of 0.5m, the maximum span to satisfy vertical

deflection limit is

a) 3.5 m

b) 4 m

c) 4.5 m

d) 5 m

Ans: a

48. For a simply supported beam of span 15m, the minimum effective depth to satisfy the

vertical deflection limits should be

a) 600 mm

b) 750 mm

c) 900 mm

d) more than 1 m

Ans: b

49. For a continuous slab of 3 m x 3.5 m size, the minimum overall depth of slab to satisfy

vertical deflection limits is

a) 50 mm

b) 75 mm

c) 100 mm

d) 120 mm

Ans: b

50. According to IS : 456-1978, the fiexural strength of concrete is

a) directly proportional to compressive strength

b) inversely proportional to compressive strength

c) directly proportional to square root of compressive strength

d) inversely proportional to square root of compressive strength

Ans: c

51. According to IS : 456-1978, the cblumn or the strut is the member whose effective length

is greater than

a) the least lateral dimension

b) 2 times the least lateral dimension

c) 3 times the least lateral dimension

d) 4 times the least lateral dimension

Ans: c

52. According to IS : 456- 1978, minimum slenderness ratio for a short column is

a) less than 12

b) less than 18

c) between 18 and 24

d) more than 24

Ans: a

53. Lap length in compression shall not be less than

a) 15 4>

b) 20 <}>

c) 24 (j)

d) 30 (j)

where (j) is diameter of bar

Ans: c

54. The minimum cover in a slab should neither be less than the diameter of bar nor less

than

a) 10 mm

b) 15 mm

c) 25 mm

d) 13 mm

Ans: b

55. For a longitudinal reinforcing bar in a column, the minimum cover shall neither be less

than the diameter of bar nor less than

a) 15 mm

b) 25 mm

c) 30mm

d) 40 mm

Ans: d

56. The ratio of the diameter of reinforcing bars and the slab thickness is

a) 1/4

b) 1/5

c) 1/6

d) 1/8

Ans: d

57. According to IS: 456-1978, the maximum reinforcement in a column is

a) 2 %

b) 4%

c) 6 %

d) 8 %

Ans: c

58. The percentage of reinforcement in case of slabs, when high strength deformed bars

are used is not less than

a) 0.15

b) 0.12

c) 0.30

d) 1.00

Ans: b

59. Which of the following statements is incorrect ?

a) Minimum cross sectional area of longitudinal reinforcement in a column is 0.8%.

b) Spacing of longitudinal bars measured along the periphery of column should not exceed

300 mm.

c) Reinforcing bars in a column should not be less than 12 mm in diameter.

d) The number of longitudinal bars pro-vided in a circular column should not be less than

four.

Ans: d

60. Which of the following statements is incorrect ?

a) Higher Vee-Bee time shows lower workability.

b) Higher slump shows higher workability.

c) Higher compacting factor shows higher workability.

d) none of the above

Ans: d

61. Minimum pitch of transverse reinforce¬ment in a column is

a) the least lateral dimension of the member

b) sixteen times the smallest diameter of longitudinal reinforcement bar to be tied

c) forty-eight times the diameter of transverse reinforcement

d) lesser of the above three values

Ans: d

62. Maximum distance between expansion joints in structures as per IS : 456 - 1978 is

a) 20 m

b) 30 m

c) 45 m

d) 60 m

Ans: c

63. A continuous beam is deemed to be a deep beam when the ratio of effective span to

overall depth (1/D) is less than

a) 1.5

b) 2.0

c) 2.5

d) 3.0

Ans: c

64. Critical section for shear in case of flat slabs is at a distance of

a) effective depth of slab from periphery of column/drop panel

b) d/2 from periphery of column/capital/ drop panel

c) at the drop panel of slab

d) at the periphery of column

Ans:b

65. Minimum thickness of load bearing RCC wall should be

a) 50 mm

b) 100 mm

c) 150 mm

d) 200 mm

Ans:b

66. If the storey height is equal to length of RCC wall, the percentage increase in strength is

a) 0

b) 10

c) 20

d) 30

Ans: b

67. In reinforced concrete footing on soil, the minimum thickness at edge should not be less

than

a) 100 mm

b) 150 mm

c) 200 mm

d) 250 mm

Ans:b

68. The slab is designed as one way if the ratio of long span to short span is

a) less than 1

b) between 1 and 1.5

c) between 1.5 and 2

d) greater than 2

Ans: d

69. Ratio of permissible stress in direct compression and bending compression is

a) less than 1

b) between 1 and 1.5

c) between 1.5 and 2.0

d) greater than 2

Ans: a

70. A higher modular ratio shows

a) higher compressive strength of con-crete

b) lower compressive strength of concrete

c) higher tensile strength of steel

d) lower tensile strength of steel

Ans:b

71. The average permissible stress in bond for plain bars in tension is

a) increased by 10% for bars in compression

b) increased by 25% for bars in compression

c) decreased by 10% for bars in compression

d) decreased by 25% for bars in com-pression

Ans:b

74. In working stress design, permissible bond stress in the case of deformed bars is more

than that in plain bars by

a) 10%

b) 20%

c) 30%

d) 40%

Ans: d

75. The main reason for providing number of reinforcing bars at a support in a simply

supported beam is to resist in that zone

a) compressive stress

b) shear stress

c) bond stress

d) tensile stress

Ans: c

76. Half of the main steel in a simply supported slab is bent up near the support at a

distance of x from the centre of slab bearing where x is equal to

a) 1/3

b) 1/5

c) 1/7

d) 1/10

where 1 is the span

Ans:c

77. When shear stress exceeds the permissible limit in a slab, then it is reduced by

a) increasing the depth

b) providing shear reinforcement

c) using high strength steel

d) using thinner bars but more in number

Ans: a

78. If the size of panel in a flat slab is 6m x 6m, then as per Indian Standard Code, the widths

of column strip and middle strip are

a) 3.0 m and 1.5 m

b) 1.5 m and 3.0 m

c) 3.0 m and 3.0 m

d) 1.5 m and 1.5 m

Ans:c

79. For a slab supported on its four edges with corners held down and loaded uniformly, the

Marcus correction factor to the moments obtained by Grashoff Rankine's theory

a) is always less than 1

b) is always greater than 1

c) can be more than 1

d) can be less than 1

Ans: a

80. The permissible diagonal tensile stress in reinforced brick work is

a) about 0.1 N/mm2

b) zero

c) 0.3 N/mm2 to 0.7 N/mm2

d) about 1.0 N/mm2

Ans: a

81. The limits of percentage p of the longitudinal reinforce-ment in a column is given by

a) 0.15% to 2%

b) 0.8% to 4%

c) 0.8% to 6%

d) 0.8% to 8%

Ans: c

82. The minimum diameter of longitudinal bars in a column is

a) 6 mm

b) 8 mm

c) 12 mm

d) 16 mm

Ans:c

83. The minimum cover to the ties or spirals should not be less than

a) 15 mm

b) 20 mm

c) 25 mm

d) 50mm

Ans: c

84. The load carrying capacity of a helically reinforced column as compared to that of a tied

column is about

a) 5% less

b) 10% less

c) 5% more

d) 10% more

Ans:c

86. The diameter of ties in a column should be

a) more than or equal to one fourth of diameter of main bar

b) more than or equal to 5 mm

c) more than 5 mm but less than one-fourth of diameter of main bar

d) more than 5 mm and also more than one-fourth of diameter of main bar

Ans: d

87. Due to circumferential action of the spiral in a spirally reinforced column

a) capacity of column is decreased

b) ductility of column reduces

c) capacity of column is decreased but ductility of column increases

d) both the capacity of column and ductility of column increase

Ans: d

88. Maximum percentage reinforcement in case of slabs is limited to

a) 2

b) 4

c) 6

d) 8

Ans: b

89. Which of the following R.C. retaining walls is suitable for heights beyond 6m?

a) L-shaped wall

b) T-shaped wall

c) counterfort type

d) all of the above

Ans: c

90. For the design of retaining walls, the minimum factor of safety against overturning is

taken as

a) 1.5

b) 2.0

c) 2.5

d) 3.0

Ans: b

91. In counterfort type retaining walls

i) the vertical slab is designed as a continuous slab

ii) the heel slab is designed as a conti¬nuous slab

iii) the vertical slab is designed as a cantilever

iv) the heel slab is designed as a cantilever

The correct answer is

a) (i) and (ii)

b) (i)and(iv)

c) (ii) and (iii)

d) (iii) and (iv)

Ans:a

92. A T-shaped retaining wall mainly conssits of

a) one cantilever

b) two cantilevers

c) three cantilevers

d) four cantilevers

Ans: c

93. In T-shaped R C. retaining walls, the main reinforcement in the stem is provided on

a) the front face in one direction

b) the front face in both directions

c) the inner face in one direction

d) the inner face in both directions

Ans:c

94. The main reinforcement in the toe of a T- shaped R C. retaining wall is provided on

i) top face parallel to the wall

ii) top face perpendicular to the wall

iii) bottom face paralleUo the wall

iv) bottom face perpendicular to the wall

The correct answer is

a) only (ii) is correct

b) (i) and (ii) are correct

c) (iii) and (iv) are correct

d) only (iv) is correct

Ans: d

95. The temperature reinforcement in the vertical slab of a T-shaped R.C. retaining wall is

a) not needed

b) provided equally on inner and front faces

c) provided more on inner face than on front face

d) provided more on front face than on inner face

Ans: d

96. The main reinforcement in the heel of a T-shaped R.C. retaining wall is provided on

a) top face perpendicular to wall

b) bottom face perpendicular to wall

c) both top and bottom faces perpendi-cular to wall

d) none of the above

Ans: a

97. In a counterfort retaining wall, the main reinforcement is provided on the

i) bottom face in front counterfort

ii) inclined face in front counterfort

iii) bottom face in back counterfort

iv) inclined face in back counterEort

The correct answer is

a) (i) and (ii),

b) (ii) and (iii)

c) (i) and (iv)

d) (iii) and (iv)

Ans: c

98. In counterfort retaining walls, the main reinforcement in the stem at support is

a) not provided

b) provided only on inner face

c) provided only on front face

d) provided both on inner and front faces

Ans: b

99. In the design of a front counterfort in a counterfort retaining wall, the main reinforcement

is provided on

i) bottom face near counterfort

ii) top face near counterfort

iii) bottom face near centre of span

iv) top face near centre of span The correct answer is

a) only (i)

b) only (ii)

c) both (i) and (iv)

d) both (ii) and (iii)

Ans: c

100. In a counterfort retaining wall, the main reinforcement in the stem at mid span is provided

on

a) front face only

b) inner face only

c) both front face and inner face

d) none of the above

Ans: a

101. The depth of footing for an isolated column is governed by

i) maximum bending moment

ii) shear force

iii) punching shear The correct answer is

a) only (i)

b) (i)and(ii)

c) (i) and (iii)

d) (i), (ii) and (iii)

Ans: d

102. If the foundations of all the columns of a structure are designed on the total live and

dead load basis, then

a) there will be no settlement of columns

b) there will be no differential settlement

c) the settlement of exterior columns will be more than interior columns

d) the settlement of interior columns will be more than exterior columns

Ans:c

103. To minimise the effect of differential settlement, the area of a footing should be designed

for

a) dead load only

b) dead load + live load

c) dead load + fraction of live load

d) live load + fraction of dead load

Ans: c

104. The critical section for finding maximum bending moment for footing under masonry wall

is located

a) at the middle of the wall

b) at the edge of the wall

c) halfway between the middle and edge of the wall

d) at a distance equal to effective depth of footing from the edge of the wall

Ans: c

105. In a pile of length /, the points of suspen¬sion from ends for lifting it are located at

a) 0.207 1

b) 0.25 /

c) 0.293 /

d) 0.333 /

Ans: a

106. During erection, the pile of length / is supported by a crane at a distance of

a) 0.207 /

b) 0.293 /

c) 0.7071

d) 0.793 /

from the driving end of pile which rests on the ground

Ans: c

107. While designing the pile as a column, the end conditions are nearly

a) both ends hinged

b) both ends fixed

c) one end fixed and other end hinged

d) one end fixed and other end free

Ans: c

108. The recommended value of modular ratio for reinforced brick work is

a) 18

b) 30

c) 40

d) 58

Ans: c

109. According to ISI recommendations, the maximum depth of stress block for balanced

section of a beam of effective depth d is

a) 0.43 d

b) 0.55 d

c) 0.68 d

d) 0.85 d

Ans: a

110. Assertion A : The load factor for live load is greater than that for dead load.

Reason R : The live loads are more uncertain than dead loads.

Select your answer based on the coding system given below :

a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.

c) A is true but R is false.

d) A is false but R is true.

Ans: a

111. The centroid of compressive force, from the extreme compression fibre, in limit state

design lies at a distance of

a) 0.367 xu

b) 0.416 xu

c) 0.446 xu

d) 0.573 xu

where xu is the depth of neutral axis at the limit state of collapse

Ans: b

112. The design yield stress of steel according to IS: 456-1978 is

a) 0.37 fy

b) 0.57 fy

c) 0.67 fy

d) 0.87 fy

where fy is the characteristic yield strength of steel

Ans: d

113. According to Whitney's theory, ultimate strain of concrete is assumed to be

a) 0.03%

b) 0.1%

c) 0.3%

d) 3%

Ans: c

114. According to Whitney's theory, depth of stress block for a balanced section of a concrete

beam is limited to

a) 0.43 d

b) 0.537 d

c) 0.68 d

d) 0.85 d

where d is effective depth of beam[ES 2k]

Ans: b

115. The load factors for live load and dead load are taken respectively as

a) 1.5 and 2.2

b) 2.2 and 1.5

c) 1.5 and 1.5

d) 2.2 and 2.2

Ans:b

116. As per Whitney's theory, the maximum moment of resistance of the balanced section of a

beam of width b and effective

depth d is given by

a) ^acybd2

b) ^acybd2

c) 0.185acybd2

d) 0.43acybd2

where acy is the cylinder compressive strength of concrete

Ans: b

127. The effect of creep on modular ratio is

a) to decrease it

b) to increase it

c) either to decrease or to increase it

d) to keep it unchanged

Ans: b

128. Shrinkage of concrete depends upon

i) humidity of atmosphere

ii) passage of time

iii) stress The correct answer is

a) (i) and (ii)

b) (ii) and (iii)

c) only (iii)

d) All (i), (ii) and (iii)

Ans: a

129. Due to shrinkage stresses, a simply supported beam having reinforcement only at

bottom tends to

a) deflect downward

b) deflect upward

c) deflect downward or upward

d) none of the above

Ans: a

130. In symmetrically reinforced sections, shrinkage stresses in concrete and steel are

respectively

a) compressive and tensile

b) tensile and compressive

c) both compressive

d) both tensile

Ans: b

131. A beam curved in plan is designed for

a) bending moment and shear

b) bending moment and torsion

c) shear and torsion

d) bending moment, shear and torsion

Ans: d

132. In a spherical dome subjected to concentrated load at crown or uniformly distributed

load, the meridional force is

always

a) zero

b) tensile

c) compressive

d) tensile or compressive

Ans: c

133. Sinking of an intermediate support of a continuous beam

i) reduces the negative moment at support

ii) increases the negative moment at support

iii) reduces the positive moment at centre of span

iv) increases the positive moment at centre of span The correct answer is

a) (i) and (iii)

b) (i)and(iv)

c) (ii) and (iii)

d) (ii) and (iv)

Ans: b

134. The maximum value of hoop compression in a dome is given by

a) wR / 4d

b) wR/2d

c) wR/d

d) 2wR/d

where, w = load per unit area of surface of dome R = radius of curvature d = thickness of

dome

Ans: b

135. In a spherical dome the hoop stress due to a concentrated load at crown is

a) compressive everywhere

b) tensile everywhere

c) partly compressive and partly tensile

d) zero

Ans:b

136. In a ring beam subjected to uniformly distributed load

i) shear force at mid span is zero

ii) shear force at mid span is maximum

iii) torsion at mid span is zero

iv) torsion at mid span is maximum The correct answer is

a) (i) and (iii)

b) (i)and(iv)

c) (ii) and (iii)

d) (ii) and (iv)

Ans:a

137. In prestressed concrete

a) forces of tension and compression change but lever arm remains unchanged

b) forces of tension and compressions remain unchanged but lever arm changes with the

moment

c) both forces of tension and compres-sion as well as lever arm change

d) both forces of tension and compres-sion as well as lever arm remain unchanged

Ans: b

138. The purpose of reinforcement in prestressed concrete is

a) to provide adequate bond stress

b) to resist tensile stresses

c) to impart initial compressive stress in concrete

d) all of the above

Ans: c

139. Normally prestressing wires are arranged in the

a) upper part of the beam

b) lower part of the beam

c) centre

d) anywhere

Ans: b

140. Most common method of prestressing used for factory production is

a) Long line method

b) Freyssinet system

c) Magnel-Blaton system

d) Lee-Macall system

Ans:a

141. Select the incorrect statement

a) The loss of prestress is more in pre-tensioning system than in post-tensioning system.

b) Pretensioning system has greater certainty about its durability.

c) For heavy loads and large spans in buildings or bridges, post-tensioning system is

cheaper than pretensioning system

d) none of the above

Ans:d

142. Which of the following losses of prestress occurs only in pretensioning and not in posttensioning

?

a) elastic shortening of concrete

b) shrinkage of concrete

c) creep of concrete

d) loss due to friction

Ans: a

143. Prestress loss due to friction occurs

a) only in post-tensioned beams

b) only in pretensioned beams

c) in both post-tensioned and preten-sioned beams

d) none of the above

Ans:a

145. Which of the following has high tensile strength ?

a) plain hot rolled wires

b) cold drawn wires

c) heat treated rolled wires

d) all have same tensile strength

Ans: b

146. High carbon content in the steel causes

a) decrease in tensile strength but increase in ductility

b) increase in tensile strength but decrease in ductility

c) decrease in both tensile strength and ductility

d) increase in both tensile strength and ductility

Ans:b

147. Stress strain curve of high tensile steel

a) has a definite yield point

b) does not show definite yield point but yield point is defined by 0.1% proof stress

c) does not show definite yield point but yield point is defined by 0.2% proof stress

d) does not show definite yield point but yield point is defined by 2% proof stress,

Ans: c

148. Select the correct statement

a) Elastic modulus of high tensile steel is nearly the same as that of mild steel.

b) Elastic modulus of high tensile steel is more than that of mild steel.

c) Carbon percentage in high carbon steel is less than that in mild steel.

d) High tensile steel is cheaper than mild steel.

Ans:a

149. Cube strength of controlled concrete to be used for pretensioned and post-tensioned

work respectively should not be less than

a) 35 MPa and 42 MPa

b) 42 MPa and 35 MPa

c) 42 MPa and 53 MPa

d) 53 MPa and 42 MPa

Ans: b

150. Ultimate strength of cold drawn high steel wires

a) increases with increase in diameter of bar

b) decreases with increase in diameter of bar

c) does not depend on diameter of bar

d) none of the above

Ans: b

151. Prestressing losses in post-tensioned and pre-tensioned beams are respectively

a) 15% and 20%

b) 20% and 15%

c) 15% and 15%

d) 20% and 20%

152. In concrete, use of angular crushed aggregate in place of natural rounded gravel affects

a) direct tensile strength

b) split tensile strength

c) flexural tensile strength

d) compressive strength

153. Ratio of compressive strength to tensile strength of concrete

a) increases with age

b) decreases with age

c) remains constant

d) none of the above

154. According to Indian Standards, the grad¬ing of fine aggregates is divided into

a) two zones

b) three zones

c) four zones

d) five zones

155. Assertion A : Lightweight concrete exhi¬bits higher shrinkage than normal weight

concrete.

Reason R : Modulus of elasticity of light-weight concrete is lower, than that of normal weight

concrete. Select your answer according to the coding system given below :

a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

b) Both A.and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A

c) A is true but R is false

d) A is false but R is true

156. Endurance limit of mild steel is approximately equal to,

a) 0.3

b) 0.5

c) 0.7

d) 0.8

Endurance limit is defined as the maxi-mum value of the ratio of maximum stress to short time

static strength, below which no failure occurs.

157. With the increase in rate of loading during testing, compressive strength of concrete

a) increases

b) decreases

c) remains same

d) none of the above

158. For a given aggregate content, increasing the water-cement ratio in concrete

a) increases shrinkage

b) decreases shrinkage

c) does not change shrinkage

d) none of the above

159. Assertion A : The net loss of strength due to air entrainment of a richer mix is higher

than that of a leaner mix. Reason R : Effect of air entrainment on improving workability is

smaller in richer mix than in a leaner mix. Select your answer based on the coding system

given below

a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A

c) A is true but R is false

d) A is false but R is true

160. The bond strength between steel rein-forcement and concrete is affected by i)

steel properties ii) concrete properties iii) shrinkage of concrete The correct answer is

a) (i) and (ii)

b) (ii) and (iii)

c) (i) and (iii)

d) (i), (ii) and (iii)

161. The bond strength between steel and concrete is due to

a) friction

b) adhesion

c) both friction and adhesion

d) none of the above

162. Impact strength of concrete increases by using

i) smaller maximum size of aggregate

ii) aggregate with high modulus of elasticity

iii) aggregate with low poisson's ratio The correct answer is

a) (i) and (ii)

b) (ii) and (iii)

c) (i) and (iii)

d) (i), (ii) and (iii)

163. Impact strength of concrete is greater for

i) water stored concrete than for dry concrete

ii) angular crushed aggregates

iii) rounded aggregates The correct answer is

a) (i) and (ii)

b) (i) and (iii)

c) only (i)

d) only (ii)

164. If the contributions of tricalcium silicate, dicalcium silicate, tricalcium aluminate

and terra calcium alumino ferrite to the 28 days strength of hydrated ordinary Portland

cement are respectively W, X, Y

and Z, then

a) W>.X>Y>Z

b) X>W>Y>Z

c) W>X>Z>Y

d) W>Y>X>Z

165. The initial and final setting times for ordinary portland cement are approxi¬

mately related as

a) T = 530 + t

b) T = 270 + t

c) T = 90+1.2t

d) T = 600-1.2t

where T and t are respectively final and initial setting times in minutes. * 166 Assertion A : The

presence of tricalcium aluminate in cement is undesirable. Reason R : Tricalcium aluminate in

ce¬ment contributes very little to strength of cement.

Select your answer based on the coding system given below

a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A

c) A is true but R is false

d) A is false but R is true

167. Amount of gypsum required to be added to the clinker depends on the following contents

of cement i) tricalcium silicate ii) dicalcium silicate iii) tricalcium aluminate iv) alkali The

correct answer is

a) (i) and (ii)

b) (ii) and (iii)

c) (iii) and (iv)

d) (i)and(iv)

168. The diameter of needle used in Vicat's apparatus for the determination of initial

setting time is prescribed as

a) 0.5 mm

b) 1 mm

c) 5 mm

d) 10mm

169. The heat of hydration of cement can be reduced by

a) reducing the proportions of C3A and C3S

b) increasing the proportions of C3A and C3S

c) increasing the fineness of cement

d) both (a) and (c)

171. Assertion A : Rapid hardening cement is generally not used in mass concrete

construction.

Reason R : The rate of heat development is low in rapid hardening cement. Select your

answer based on the coding system given below

a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.

c) A is true but R is false.

d) A is false but R is true.

172. If the angularity number of an aggregate is increased, then the workability of the

concrete using this aggregate will

a) increase

b) decrease

c) not change

d) none of the above

173. If W,, W2, W3 and W4 are the weights of sand in oven dry, air dry, saturated but

surface dry and moist conditions respectively, then the moisture content of sand is

a) W3 - W,

b) W4-W2

c) W4-W3

d) W3-W2

174. The ordinate of grading curve of an aggregate represents

a) cumulative percentage passing each sieve plotted on normal scale

b) cumulative percentage passing each sieve plotted on logarithmic scale

c) sieve size plotted on normal scale

d) sieve size plotted on logarithmic scale

175. Increase in fineness modulus of aggregate indicates

a) finer grading

b) coarser grading

c) gap grading

d) none of the above

176. Weight of an oven dry sand and air dry sand are 500 gm and 520 gm respectively.

If the weight of the same sand under saturated but surface dry condition is 525 gms, then the

water absorption of sand is

a) 1%

b) 4%

c) 4.76%

d) 5%

177. Soundness test of cement by Le-Chatelier's apparatus gives unsoundness due to

a) free lime only

b) magnesia only

c) both free lime and magnesia

d) none of the above

178. Maximum permissible limit of magnesia content in ordinary Portland cement is

a) 4%

b) 6%

c) 8%

d) 10%

COURTESY : ENGINEERING KINGS

SURVEYING - GENERAL QUESTIONS ASKED IN COMPETITIVE EXAMS

1. During chaining along a straight line, the . leader of the party has 4 arrows in his
hand while the follower has 6. Distance of the follower from the starting point is
a) 4 chains
b) 6 chains
c) 120 m
d) 180m
Ans: b
2. A metallic tape is made of
a) steel
b) invar
c) linen
d) cloth and wires
Ans: d
3. For a well-conditioned triangle, no angle should be less than
a) 20°
b) 30°
c) 45°
d) 60°
Ans: b
4. The angle of intersection of the two plane mirrors of an optical square is
a) 30°
b) 45°
c) 60°
d) 90°
Ans: b
5. The allowable length of an offset depends upon the
a) degree of accuracy required
b) method of setting out the perpendiculars and nature of ground
c) scale of plotting
d) all of the above
Ans: d
6. Which of the following angles can be set out with the help of French cross
staff?
a) 45° only
b) 90° only
c) either 45° or 90°
d) any angle
Ans: c
7. Which of the following methods of offsets involves less measurement on the
ground?
a) method of perpendicular offsets
b) method of oblique offsets
c) method of ties
d) all involve equal measurement on the ground
Ans: a
8. The permissible error in chaining for measurement with chain on rough or hilly
ground is
a) 1 in 100
b) 1 in 250
c) 1 in 500
d) 1 in 1000
Ans: b
9. The correction for sag is
a) always additive
b) always subtractive
c) always zero
d) sometimes additive and sometimes subtractive
Ans: b
10. Cross staff is an instrument used for
a) measuring approximate horizontal angles
b) setting out right angles
c) measuring bearings of the lines
d) none of the above
Ans: b
11. Normal tension is that pull which
a) is used at the time of standardising the tape
b) neutralizes the effect due to pull and sag
c) makes the correction due to sag equal to zero
d) makes the correction due to pull equal to zero
Ans: b
12. Which of the following is not used in measuring perpendicular offsets ?
a) line ranger
b) steel tape
c) optical square
d) cross staff
Ans: a
13. If the length of a chain is found to be short on testing, it can be adjusted by
a) straightening the links
b) removing one or more small circular rings
c) closing the joints of the rings if opened out
d) all of the above
Ans: a
14. The maximum tolerance in a 20 m chain is
a) ±2 mm
b) ±3 mm
c) ±5 mm
d) ±8 mm
Ans: c
15. For accurate work, the steel band should always be used in preference to
chain because the steel band
a) is lighter than chain
b) is easier to handle
c) is practically inextensible and is not liable to kinks when in use
d) can be easily repaired in the field
Ans: c
16. The length of a chain is measured from
a) centre of one handle to centre of other handle
b) outside of one handle to outside of other handle
c) outside of one handle to inside of other handle
d) inside of one handle to inside of other handle
Ans: b
17. Select the incorrect statement.
a) The true meridians at different places are parallel to each other.
b) The true meridian at any place is not variable.
c) The true meridians converge to a point in northern and southern hemispheres.
d) The maps prepared by national survey departments of any country are based on true
meridians.
Ans: a
18. If the true bearing of a line AB is 269° 30', then the azimuth of the line AB is
a) 0° 30'
b) 89° 30'
c) 90° 30'
d) 269° 30'
Ans: c
19. In the prismatic compass
a) the magnetic needle moves with the box
b) the line of the sight does not move with the box
c) the magnetic needle and graduated circle do not move with the box
d) the graduated circle is fixed to the box and the magnetic needle always remains in the NS
direction
Ans: c
20. For a line AB
a) the forebearing of AB and back bearing of AB differ by 180°
b) the forebearing of AB and back bearing of BA differ by 180°
c) both (a) and (b) are correct.
d) none is correct
Ans: a
21. Local attraction in compass surveying may exist due to
a) incorrect levelling of the magnetic needle
b) loss of magnetism of the needle
c) friction of the needle at the pivot
d) presence of magnetic substances near the instrument
Ans: d
22. In the quadrantal bearing system, a whole circle bearing of 293° 30' can be
expressed as
a) W23°30'N
b) N66°30'W
c) S113°30'N
d) N23°30'W
Ans: b
23. The prismatic compass and surveyor's compass
a) give whole circle bearing (WCB) of a line and quadrantal bearing (QB) of a line
respectively
b) both give QB of a line and WCB of a line
c) both give QB of a line
d) both give WCB of a line
Ans: a
24. The horizontal angle between the true meridian and magnetic meridian at a
place is called
a) azimuth
b) declination
c) local attraction
d) magnetic bearing
Ans: b
25. A negative declination shows that the magnetic meridian is to the
a) eastern side of the true meridian
b) western side of the true meridian
c) southern side of the true meridian
d) none of the above
Ans: b
26. If the magnetic bearing of the sun at a place at noon in southern hemisphere is
167°, the magnetic declination at that place is
a) 77° N
b) 23° S
c) 13° E
d) 13° W
Ans: c
27. The graduations in prismatic compass
i) are inverted
ii) are upright
iii) run clockwise having 0° at south
iv) run clockwise having 0° at north
The correct answer is
a) (i) and (iii)
b) (i) and (iv)
c) (ii) and (iii)
d) (ii) and (iv)
Ans: a
28. Agate cap is fitted with a
a) cross staff
b) level
c) chain
d) prismatic compass
Ans: d
29. The temporary adjustments of a prismatic compass are
i) Centering
ii) Levelling
iii) Focusing the prism
The correct order is
a) (0, (iii), 00
b) (0, (ii), (iii)
c) (ii), (iii), 0)
d) (in), (i), (ii)
Ans: b
30. Theodolite is an instrument used for
a) tightening the capstan-headed nuts of level tube
b) measurement of horizontal angles only
c) measurement of vertical angles only
d) measurement of both horizontal and vertical angles
Ans: d
31. The process of turning the telescope about the vertical axis in horizontal
plane is known as
a) transiting
b) reversing
c) plunging
d) swinging
Ans: d
32. Size of a theodolite is specified by
a) the length of telescope
b) the diameter of vertical circle
c) the diameter of lower plate
d) the diameter of upper plate
Ans: c
33. Which of the following is not the function of levelling head ?
a) to support the main part of the instrument
b) to attach the theodolite to the tripod
c) to provide a means for leveling the theodolite
d) none of the above
Ans: d
34. If the lower clamp screw is tightened and upper clamp screw is loosened, the
theodolite may be rotated
a) on its outer spindle with a relative motion between the vernier and graduated scale of
lower plate
b) on its outer spindle without a relative motion between the vernier and gra-duated scale of
lower plate
c) on its inner spindle with a relative motion between the vernier and the graduated scale of
lower plate
d) on its inner spindle without a relative motion between the vernier and the graduated
scale of lower plate
Ans: c
35. A telescope is said to be inverted if its
a) vertical circle is to its right and the bubble of the telescope is down
b) vertical circle is to its right and the bubble of the telescope is up
c) vertical circle is to its left and the bubble of the telescope is down
d) vertical circle is to its left and the bubble of the telescope is up
Ans: a
36. The cross hairs in the surveying telescope are placed
a) midway between eye piece and objec¬tive lens
b) much closer to the eye-piece than to the objective lens
c) much closer to the objective lens than to the eye piece
d) anywhere between eye-piece and objective lens
Ans: b
37. For which of the following permanent adjustments of theodolite, the spire test is
used ?
a) adjustment of plate levels
b) adjustment of line of sight
c) adjustment of horizontal axis
d) adjustment of altitude bubble and vertical index frame
Ans: c
38. The adjustment of horizontal cross hair is required particularly when the
instrument is used for
a) leveling
b) prolonging a straight line
c) measurement of horizontal angles
d) all of the above
Ans: a
39. Which of the following errors is not eliminated by the method of repetition of
horizontal angle measurement ?
a) error due to eccentricity of verniers
b) error due to displacement of station signals
c) error due to wrong adjustment of line of collimation and trunnion axis
d) error due to inaccurate graduation
Ans: b
40. The error due to eccentricity of inner and outer axes can be eliminated by
a) reading both verniers and taking the mean of the two
b) taking both face observations and taking the mean of the two
c) double sighting
d) taking mean of several readings distributed over different portions of the graduated circle
Ans: a
41. In the double application of principle of reversion, the apparent error is
a) equal to true error
b) half the true error
c) two times the true error
d) four times the true error
Ans: d
42. Which of the following errors can be eliminated by taking mean of bot face
observations ?
a) error due to imperfect graduations
b) error due to eccentricity of verniers
c) error due to imperfect adjustment of plate levels
d) error due to line of collimation not being perpendicular to horizontal axis
Ans: d
43. Which of the following errors cannot be eliminated by taking both face
observations ?
a) error due to horizontal axis not being perpendicular to the vertical axis
b) index error i.e. error due to imperfect adjustment of the vertical circle vernier
c) error due to non-parallelism of the axis of telescope level and line of collimation
d) none of the above
Ans: d
44. If a tripod settles in the interval that elapses between taking a back sight
reading and the following foresight reading, then the elevation of turning point will
a) increase
b) decrease
c) not change
d) either 'a' or 'b'
Ans: a
45. If altitude bubble is provided both on index frame as well as on telescope of a
theodolite, then the instrument is levelled with reference to
i) altitude bubble on index frame
ii) altitude bubble on index frame if it is to be used as a level
iii) altitude bubble on telescope
iv) altitude bubble on telescope if it is to be used as a level The correct answer is
a) only (i)
b) both (i) and (iv)
c) only (iii)
d) both (ii) and (iii)
Ans: b
46. A'level line'is a
a) horizontal line
b) line parallel to the mean spheriodal surface of earth
c) line passing through the center of cross hairs and the center of eye piece
d) line passing through the objective lens and the eye-piece of a dumpy or tilting level
Ans: b
47. The following sights are taken on a "turning point"
a) foresight only
b) backsight only
c) foresight and backsight
d) foresight and intermediate sight
Ans: c
48. The rise and fall method of levelling provides a complete check on
a) backsight
b) intermediate sight
c) foresight
d) all of the above
Ans: d
49. If the R.L. of a B.M. is 100.00 m, the back- sight is 1.215 m and the foresight is
1.870 m, the R.L. of the forward station is
a) 99.345 m
b) 100.345 m
c) 100.655m
d) 101.870m
Ans: a
50. In an internal focussing type of telescope, the lens provided is
a) concave
b) convex
c) plano-convex
d) plano-concave
Ans: a
51. Which of the following errors can be neutralised by setting the level midway
between the two stations ?
a) error due to curvature only
b) error due to refraction only
c) error due to both curvature and re-fraction
d) none of the above
Ans: c
52. Height of instrument method of levelling is
a) more accurate than rise and fall method
b) less accurate than rise and fall method
c) quicker and less tedious for large number of intermediate sights
d) none of the above
Ans: c
53. The rise and fall method
a) is less.accurate than height of instrument method
b) is not suitable for levelling with tilting levels
c) provides a check on the reduction of intermediate point levels
d) quicker and less tedious for large number of intermediate sights
Ans: c
54. If the staff is not held vertical at a level¬ling station, the reduced level
calculated from the observation would be
a) true R.L.
b) more than true R.L.
c) less than true R.L.
d) none of the above
Ans: c
55. The difference between a level line and a horizontal line is that
a) level line is a curved line while hori-zontal line is a straight line
b) level line is normal to plumb line while horizontal line may not be normal to plumb line at
the tangent point to level line
c) horizontal line is normal to plumb line while level line may not be normal to the plumb line
d) both are same
Ans: a
56. The sensitivity of a bubble tube can be increased by
a) increasing the diameter of the tube
b) decreasing the length of bubble
c) increasing the viscosity of liquid
d) decreasing the radius of curvature of tube
Ans: a
57. With the rise of temperature, the sensitivity of a bubble tube
a) decreases
b) increases
c) remains unaffected
d) none of the above
Ans: a
58. Refraction correction
a) completely eliminates curvature correction
b) partially eliminates curvature correction
c) adds to the curvature correction
d) has no effect on curvature correction
Ans: b
59. The R.L, of the point A which is on the floor is 100 m and back sight reading on
A is 2.455 m. If the foresight reading on the point B which is on the ceiling is 2.745
m, the R.L. of point B will be
a) 94.80 m
b) 99.71 m
c) 100.29 m
d) 105.20 m
Ans: d
60. As applied to staff readings, the corrections for curvature and refraction are
respectively
The above table shows a part of a level field book. The value of X should be
a) 98.70
b) 100.00
c) 102.30
d) 103.30
Ans: b
63. If the horizontal distance between the staff point and the point of observation is
d, then the error due to curvature of earth is proportional to
a) d
b) 1/d
c) d2
d) 1/d2
Ans: c
64. Sensitiveness of a level tube is designated by
a) radius of level tube
b) length of level tube
c) length of bubble of level tube
d) none of the above
Ans: a
65. Which of the following statements is in-correct ?
a) Error due to refraction may not be completely eliminated by reciprocal levelling.
b) Tilting levels are commonly used for precision work.
c) The last reading of levelling is always a foresight.
d) All of the above statements are incorrect.
Ans: d
66. Dumpy level is most suitable when
a) the instrument is to be shifted frequently
b) fly levelling is being done over long distance
c) many readings are to be taken from a single setting of the instrument
d) all of the above
Ans: c
67. The difference of levels between two stations A and B is to be determined. For best
results, the instrument station should be
a) equidistant from A and B
b) closer to the higher station
c) closer to the lower station
d) as far as possible from the line AB
Ans: a
68. Contour interval is
a) inversely proportional to the scale of the map
b) directly proportional to the flatness of ground
c) larger for accurate works
d) larger if the time available is more
Ans: a
69. An imaginary line lying throughout the surface of ground and preserving a constant
inclination to the horizontal is known as
a) contour line
b) horizontal equivalent
c) contour interval
d) contour gradient
Ans: d
70. The suitable contour interval for a map with scale 1 : 10000 is
a) 2 m
b) 5m
c) 10 m
d) 20 m
Ans: a
71. Select the correct statement.
a) A contour is not necessarily a closed curve.
b) A contour represents a ridge line if the concave side of lower value con¬tour lies towards
the higher value contour.
c) Two contours of different elevations do not cross each other except in case of an
overhanging cliff.
d) All of the above statements are correct.
Ans: c
72. A series of closely spaced contour lines represents a
a) steep slope
b) gentle slope
c) uniform slope
d) plane surface
Ans: a
73. Direct method of contouring is
a) a quick method
b) adopted for large surveys only
c) most accurate method
d) suitable for hilly terrains
Ans: c
74. In direct method of contouring, the process of locating or identifying points lying on a
contour is called
a) ranging
b) centring
c) horizontal control
d) vertical control
Ans: d
75. In the cross-section method of indirect contouring, the spacing of cross-sections
depends upon
i) contour interval
ii) scale of plan
iii) characteristics of ground
The correct answer is
a) only (i)
b) (i)and(ii)
c) (ii) and (iii)
d) (i), (ii) and (iii)
Ans: d
76. Which of the following methods of con-touring is most suitable for a hilly terrain ?
a) direct method
b) square method
c) cross-sections method
d) tacheometric method
Ans: d
77. Select the correct statement.
a) Contour interval on any map is kept constant.
b) Direct method of contouring is cheap¬er than indirect method.
c) Inter-visibility of points on a contour map cannot be ascertained.
d) Slope of a hill cannot be determined with the help of contours.
Ans: a
78. Closed contours, with higher value inwards, represent a
a) depression
b) hillock
c) plain surface
d) none of the above
Ans: b
79. Contour interval is
a) the vertical distance between two con-secutive contours
b) the horizontal distance between two consecutive contours
c) the vertical distance between two points on same contour
d) the horizontal distance between two points on same contour
Ans: a
80. Benchmark is established by
a) hypsometry
b) barometric levelling
c) spirit levelling
d) trigonometrical levelling
Ans: c
81. The type of surveying which requires least office work is
a) tacheomefry
b) trigonometrical levelling
c) plane table surveying
d) theodolite surveying
Ans: c
82. Intersection method of detailed plotting is most suitable for
a) forests
b) urban areas
c) hilly areas
d) plains
Ans: c
83. Detailed plotting is generally done by
a) radiation
b) traversing
c) resection
d) all of the above
Ans: a
84. Three point problem can be solved by
a) Tracing paper method
b) Bessels method
c) Lehman's method
d) all of the above
Ans: d
85. The size of a plane table is
a) 750 mm x 900 mm
b) 600 mm x 750 mm
c) 450 mm x 600 mm
d) 300 mm x 450 mm
Ans: b
86. The process of determining the locations of the instrument station by drawing re sectors
from the locations of the known stations is called
a) radiation
b) intersection
c) resection
d) traversing
Ans: c
87. The instrument used for accurate centering in plane table survey is
a) spirit level
b) alidade
c) plumbing fork
d) trough compass
Ans: c
88. Which of the following methods of plane table surveying is used to locate the position of
an inaccessible point ?
a) radiation
b) intersection
c) traversing
d) resection
Ans: b
89. The two point problem and three point problem are methods of
a) resection
b) orientation
c) traversing
d) resection and orientation
Ans: d
90. The resection by two point problem as compared to three point problem
a) gives more accurate problem
b) takes less time
c) requires more labour
d) none of the above
Ans: c
91. The methods used for locating the plane table stations are
i) radiation
ii) traversing
iii) intersection
iv) resection
The correct answer is
a) (i) and (ii)
b) (iii) and (iv)
c) (ii) and (iv)
d) (i) and (iii)
Ans: c
92. After fixing the plane table to the tripod, the main operations which are needed at each
plane table station are
i) levelling
ii) orientation
iii) centering
The correct sequence of these operations is
a) (i), (ii),.(iii)
b) (i), (iii), (ii)
c) (iii), (i), (ii)
d) (ii), (Hi), (i)
Ans: b
93. Bowditch rule is applied to
a) an open traverse for graphical adjustment
b) a closed traverse for adjustment of closing error
c) determine the effect of local attraction
d) none of the above
Ans: b
94. If in a closed traverse, the sum of the north latitudes is more than the sum of the south
latitudes and also the sum of west departures is more than the sum of the east departures,
the bearing of the closing line is in the
a) NE quadrant
b) SE quadrant
c) NW quadrant
d) SW quadrant
Ans: b
95. If the reduced bearing of a line AB is N60°W and length is 100 m, then the latitude and
departure respectively of the line AB will be
a) +50 m, +86.6 m
b) +86.6 m, -50 m
c) +50m, -86.6 m
d) +70.7 m,-50 m
Ans: b
96. The angle between the prolongation of the preceding line and the forward line of a
traverse is called
a) deflection angle
b) included angle
c) direct angle
d) none of the above
Ans: a
97. Transit rule of adjusting the consecutive coordinates of a traverse is used where
a) linear and angular measurements of the traverse are of equal accuracy
b) angular measurements are more accurate than linear measurements
c) linear measurements are more accurate than angular measurements
d) all of the above
Ans: b
98. Which of the following methods of theodolite traversing is suitable for locating the details
which are far away from transit stations ?
a) measuring angle and distance from one transit station
b) measuring angles to the point from at least two stations
c) measuring angle at one station and distance from other
d) measuring distance from two points on traverse line
Ans: b
99. Subtense bar is an instrument used for
a) levelling
b) measurement of horizontal distances in plane areas
c) measurement of horizontal distances in undulated areas
d) measurement of angles
Ans: c
100. Horizontal distances obtained by thermometric observations
a) require slope correction
b) require tension correction
c) require slope and tension corrections
d) do not require slope and tension corrections
Ans: d
101. The number of horizontal cross wires in a stadia diaphragm is
a) one
b) two
c) three
d) four
Ans: c
102. If the intercept on a vertical staff is ob-served as 0.75 m from a tacheometer, the
horizontal distance between tacheometer and staff station is
a) 7.5 m
b) 25 m
c) 50
d) 75 m
Ans: d
103. For a tacheometer the additive and multi-plying constants are respectively
a) 0 and 100
b) 100 and 0
c) 0 and 0
d) 100 and 100
Ans: a
104. If the focal length of the object glass is 25 cm and the distance from object glass to the
trunnion axis is 15 cm, the additive constant is
a) 0.1
b) 0.4
c) 0.6
d) 1.33
Ans: b
105. Overturning of vehicles on a curve can be avoided by using
a) compound curve
b) vertical curve
c) reverse curve
d) transition curve
Ans: d
106. Different grades are joined together by a
a) compound curve
b) transition curve
c) reverse curve
d) vertical curve
Ans: d

COURTESY : ENGINEERING KINGS